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Lemma. [math-000M]

If f:SnRnf : S^n \to \R^n is continuous and antipode-preserving, then there exists a point xSnx \in S^n such that f(x)=0f(x) = 0.

Proof

Use standard stereographic projection, we can see NN and SS charts gives exactly the same coordinate system at equator (i.e. where its embedding coordinate (x1,,xn+1)(x_1, \dots, x_{n+1}) with xn+1=0x_{n+1} = 0). This also tells the equator is a Sn1S^{n-1} in Rn\R^n because x12++xn2=1x_1^2 + \dots + x_n^2 = 1.

By continuous and antipode-preserving, ff preserves such an equator (we denote EE) to Sn1S^{n-1} (with any deformation that still an antipode shape) and f(E)f(E) must bound a set contains 0Rn0 \in \R^n.

By continuous, both of two open sets of SnS^n, complement of EE, needs to be mapped to cover the subset of Rn\R^n which bounded by f(E)f(E), so there exists a point xSnx \in S^n such that f(x)=0f(x) = 0.